[Jonathan]

Originally Posted by Saya

Liar liar pants on fire, your very first post was bemoaning how mental healthcare is too expensive and this is primarily to blame.

Here's my first post: "Mentally healthy individuals do not gun down 26 people.

The de facto restriction of health care (it's expensive thus hard for people without much money to get) means some people are not getting the help they need. It's entirely possible that something like that coupled with the perception or reality of desperate conditions create an atmosphere of crushing despair that can push people to awful places.

It's all speculation at this point until more information comes out."

Is your position that mental health care costs are not a big deal? Because some people disagree http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/19948605

So talking in depth about the murder of children is okay to you, but not rrape?

Yep! No interest in discussing that with you, and since we're not locked in an elevator you can't force me to.

no, but you are discriminating against the mentally ill as if we're just itching to shoot up places if we don't get healthcare.

Bald-faced lie. But like nearly every 'argument' we've had on this board it is due to you projecting what you wish I said instead of what I'm actually writing. Per the handy flowchart up above, this ain't a conversation.

Where are you getting your numbers? Non-Hispanic whites make 63% percent(http://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/b...c2010br-02.pdf). So lets say half of that is male, and we come to 31.5% of the population being white male, regardless of class. I'm not so good with statistics to be able to calculate how much of the middle class is male, since a lot of it goes by household anyway, so let's say most white men are middle class, 75%? Now we're down to 23.6 of the population. So why aren't white middle class males representing 23.6% of mass murderers, instead of 80%? Even if every single white guy was middle class, why wouldn't they just be representing 31.5%? Especially when they are underrepresented in all other violent crimes compared to men of colour? Why has only one mass murderer in the last 30 years been a woman?

Obviously it is because of their skin tone. There is literally no other possible explanation. I wish they warned me about it in White School.

But you're trying to say you know better than criminal psychologists when you say they're wrong for not considering psychopaths mentally ill. Morally, its wrong to pathologize homosexuality or trans*ness. Absyinthe is right in saying the DSM is a product of culture, but in that case, psychopathy has not been included despite armchair psychologists as yourself and the media insisting that it is a mental illness.

Until people start linking to credentials everybody here is relegated to arm chair status.

http://www.med.wisc.edu/news-events/...function/32979

I challenge you to even define psychopath, since I'm pretty sure you're just using the meaning you hear in movies and not the actual definition.

It's when someone runs down the street screaming and dripping with bl--- no wait, that's not right...
Psychopathy describes a set of characteristics that can run a range from mild to severe antisocial or amoral tendencies.

Systems are often racist, sexist, classist, homophobic, ableist, etc. According to you, all evil originates from mental illness, so yes?

I explicitly stated that I did not believe mental illness removed individual agency, and yet here you are once again assigning things I did not say to me. It's kind of childish really.